COME ON DOCTOR

Veterinary Microbiology- A refresher..

2010-07-07T00:23:00.001-07:00

Credit: Contributed by Dr.Viswanathan,M.V.Sc.

1. _________, _______and_________are the major important necropsy findings in anthrax. (oozing of unclotted blood, absence of rigor mortis, splenomegaly)

2. Sheep can be vaccinated with ___________ vaccine against Johne’s disease. (M.paratuberculosis bovine type, heat killed mineral oil adjuvant vaccine)

3. The most common manifestation of actinomycosis in cattle is _________ of the bones of the head, the mandibles and maxilla. (rarefying osteomyelitis)

4. The avirulent strains of Bacillus anthracis appear not to carry the _________ factor. (virulance factor)

5. The widely accepted serological diagnostic test used in Glanders is _____________. (CFT)

6. The colonial morphology of Bacillus anthracis is typically non-haemolytic and gives the appearance of __________. (medusa head colonies)

7. Septicemic Pasteurellosis of cattle must be differentiated from _____, ____ and _______. (BQ, anthrax, acute leptospirosis)

8. _________ and ________ products are mostly responsible for outbreaks of Sallmonellosis of human beings. (milk, meat)

9. In actinobacillosis the sulfur granules from the lesions show a central mass of ________ bacteria surrounded by a peripheral rosette of clubs which stain ________________. (Gram negative, purple colour)

10. The commonly used serological test for the diagnosis of Black leg is ____________. (FAT)

11. ______________, ___________, _______________, are the commonly isolated organism from lesions of malignant oedema. (Cl.septicum, Cl.chauvoei, Cl.novyi)

12. ______ in general suffer more severe form of clostridical disease than do _____ and protection afforded to _______ by multivalent vaccines is less than that of _________. (goats, sheep, goats, sheep)

13. The main principles in the treatment of tetanus are ______, ________ and _______ (neutralization of toxin, control of muscular spasm, elimination of bacteria)

14. ________, ___________and _________ are major postmortem findings in Johne’s disease. (Corrugated, intestinal mucosa, red-edematous ileo-caecal valve, emaciated carcass)

15. Vaccines against anthrax usually contain non-encapsulated _________ strain. (avirulent stern's strain)

16. Goats in general suffer _________form of clostridial diseases than do sheep and the protection afforded to _________ by multivalent vaccines is less than that to ________. (more severe form, goats, sheep)

17. Diagnosis of salmonella infection done by __________ medium. (selenite broth medium)

18. The toxins of Clostridium botulinum are neurotoxins and produce ________________ without the development of histological lesions.

19. Pulpy kidney disease is an enterotoxemia of sheep, goats and cattle caused due to elaboration of ________________ toxin by ______________. (epsilon, Cl.perfringens type D)

20. Purpura hemorrhagica is a sequel to __________ in horses caused by sensitivity to protein of ____________. (strangles, Str. equi subspp. equi)

21. Cattle can be infected with Leptospiral serovars namely __________ and ____________ which may cause septicemia, mastitis or/abortions whereas in dogs the infection may predominantly occur by serovars _______________ and ________________. (pomona, hardjo, icterohaemorhagiae, canocola)

22. Pneumonic pasteurellosis is a commonly occurs in cattle in the age group of _____________________ and is caused by ______________. (6 months - 2 yrs, P.haemolytica A:1)

23. In leptospirosis, a maintenance host is characterized by _________ susceptibility to infection, relatively ________ pathogenicity of the serovar for its host and a tendency to cause a __________ state. (high, low, chronic/persistant)

24. The most commonly used serological diagnosis of leptospirosis is _______________. (MAT)

25. In pigs erysipelas is caused by ___________ and is accompanied by ____________ lesions in acute form and _______________ and _____________ in a chronic form. (E.rhusiopathiae, diamond skin lesions, suppurative polyarthritis, vegetative endocarditis)

26. ____________________ and _________________ are the important clinical signs in case of Mycobacterium paratuberculosis. (intermittent diarrhoea/chronic diarrhoea, progressive weight loss)

27. Mycobacterium paratuberculosis organisms are present inside the ____________ cells. (Macrophage cells)

28. __________ and ___________ tuberculin are injected simultaneously to screen animals against JD and TB by using comparative test. (M.paratuberculosis PPD/Johnin PPD, M.bovis PPD/Tuberculin PPD)

29. ___________ taken from rectum is used for ___________staining in the diagnosis of JD. (pinch biopsy, acid-fast staining)

30. ________________ is used to detect salmonella infected birds. (serum by rapid plate agglutination test)

31. ___________ lesion is common on the belly, thighs, neck etc. in case of swine erysipelas infection. (diamond skin lesions)

32. ______________ is the major clinical sign in swine erysipelas infection. (diamond skin lesions and/or non-suppurative polarthritis)

33. ____________ drugs are more sensitive to pasteurella organisms. (sulphadimidine)

34. ________________ is the major clinical sign in lumpy jaw. (rarefying osteomyelitis)

35. ______________ is produced by fetus in case of brucella infection. (Erythritol)

36. __________ is a major clinical sign in haemorrhagic septicemia infection. (sub-mandibular edema)

37. Guttural pouch empyema is due to abscess of _________________. (retrophryngeal lymphnodes in the parotid area)

38. In endemic areas sheep and cattle harbour Clostridium novyi in their ____________. (liver and intestinal tract)

39. _________ and ___________ are two major predilection sites of brucella organisms. (placenta, gravid uterus)

40. Clostridium septicum is able to produce ________, _________, and __________ toxins. (alpha, beta, delta, gamma toxins)

41. ________ and __________ are exotoxins produced by Corynebacterium organisms.

42. Abortion in sheep is due to Salmonella ______________. (S.dublin)

43. _______________ medium is useful to culture E.coli organisms. (EMB)

44. __________ and __________ clinical signs are common in Actinomyces bovis infection. (painless swelling of the jaw and in the intermandibular space, rarefying osteomyelitis)

45. Cell mediated immunity plays major role in salmonella infection, since salmonella are _______________ bacteria. (intracellular)

46. __________ is the predilection site of swine erysipelas organisms. (tonsils and lymphoid organs)

47. Anthrax bacilli may produce and in man. (skin lesions, pneumonia, enteritis)

48. _________________is considered commonly as a cause of bovine mastitis because of the zoonotic importance of the organism in dairy products. (Streptococcus spp., M.bovis)

49. A sequel to some cases of apparent enteric salmonellosis is the development of _____________ of the extremities. (arthritis)

50. ________________ along with Brucella abortus produces “fistulous withers” in horse. (Actinomysis bovis)

51. Pulmonary form of anthrax in man is called as ________________. (hide porter's disease)

52. _______________ is the choice of laboratory animal used in biological test in the diagnosis of Haemorrhagic septicaemia. (rabbit)

53. Bovine lymphangitis vaccine is given subcutaneously with the doses of _________, ________, _________ at an interval of __________ days between each injection. (10 ml, 10 ml, 20 ml, 3 days interval)

54. Infected cattle excrete Johne’s disease bacilli in faeces for ____________month before clinical disease appear. (15-18 months)

55. Ehrlichiosis in dogs is manifested in 3 forms _________, _________, ____________. (peracute/febrile form, subacute form, chronic form)

56. The _____________ route is the most important mode of transmission in animal salmonellosis. (faeco-oral route)

57. B. bronchoseptica can cause a tracheous bronchitis in dogs similar to _____________. (CD or bronchopneumonia)

58. Leptospiral serovars commonly affecting cattle are __________and _________. (pomona, hardjo)

59. Fowl spirochaetosis is caused by ___________ and transmitted by the vector ___________. (Borrelia anserina, argasid ticks/Argas persicus)

60. The site of carrying out tuberculin test in poultry is _______________. (wattle)

61. _____________ toxin is released by _____________ produces Enterotoxaemia in sheep. (epsilon, Cl.perfringens type D)

62. _________________ drug is the choice for the treatment of leptospirosis in cattle. (Dihydrostreptomycin)

63. Most important bacteria in foot rot of sheep is _____________. (Bacteroides nodosus)

64. Pasteurella organisms are present in healthy animals in _________ and ____________. (terminal bronchiole, alveoli)

65. Ascoli’s test is a precipitation test used for identification of _____________ antigen in carcasses, in _____________ and ____________ and ________. (B.anthracis antigen, hide, skin, tissues)

66. Type of vaccine used to protect against Blackquarter is ___________ for which _______________ from the organism is the source of antigen. (alum precipetated, BQ aggressin)

67. A virulent strain of Pasteurella multocida can be obtained by growing the organism in _____________ condition. (anaerobic conditions)

68. Passive immunity against tetanus can be achieved by injecting ________ at the dose rate of _________________ for horses. (tetanus toxoids, 1500-3000 IU)

69. ___________ with turbid yellow fluid in the pericardial sac and fibrin attached to the surface of the heart is a feature of chronic fowl typhoid. (pericarditis)

70. All the non-pathogenic leptospires are classified as _____________. (Leptospira biflexa)

71. Listerial abortion is a rare feature in __________. (pigs)

72. Swine erysipelas is otherwise known as ______ disease. (diamond skin disease)

73. _______ and ________ are some of the simple tests for finding milk abnormalities. (white side test, strip-cup test)

74. Campylobacter fetus jejuni is responsible for ______________ dysentery or __________ scour. (winter, blood)

75. Fowl coryza causes economic losses due to ________ and reduced egg production particularly on farms where birds of ______ are maintained. (high culling rate growing birds, multi-age groups)

76. Incidence of _________ increased post-Newcastle disease vaccination as vaccination causes ________ in birds. (coryza, immunosuppression)

77. True actinomycosis is found mostly in the bone of _______________. (skull)

78. In man, Brucella abortus causes a disease known as brucellosis or _____________. (undulant fever)

79. A characteristic lesion in the chronic form of swine erysipelas is _________. (vegetative endocarditis)

80. Cattle in _________ deficient areas may be infected with anthrax by chewing _________, while sheep in the same area escape because they do not show ______________. (phosphorous, decayed bones, pica)

81. Affected sheep may move in circles in one direction, may exhibit unilateral facial paralysis, have difficulty in swallowing and head pressing are commonly observed. Your tentative diagnosis is ______________. (listeriosis)

82. Production of ____________ by pathogenic leptospira species is significant in renal colonization. (TNF-alpha/lymphokines)

83. Actinobacillosis is characterised by inflammation of ___________, pharyngeal lymph nodes and other ___________ tissues. (base of the tongue, soft tissues)

84. __________ is chronic wasting disease of cattle in which intestinal corrugation are seen. (Johne's disease)

85. ______________ is the screening test for cattle herd for brucellosis. (Rose-Bengal buffered plate agglutination test / Card agglutination test / SPAT / STAT)

86. Vaccine used for anthrax is ____________. (attenuated live spores of avirulent stern's strain vaccine)

87. Actinomyces bovis is also known as ________________. (ray fungus)

88. Clostridium septicum produces ________ and _____ toxins. (alpha, beta)

89. Control of Johne’s disease is difficult because of ____ and ______. (inaccuracy of the diagnostic tests, impossibility of acquiring disease-free stock)

90. Milk ring test is performed to detect ____________ infection. (brucella infection)

91. A severe purulent infection of the upper respiratory tract and draining lymph nodes of young horse is known as ____________. (Strangles/equine distemper)

92. Foot rot is economically important disease because of ___________, _______________ loss and reduced _____________ yield. (production (because of joint involvement), weight, wool/milk)

93. Three types of leptospirosis in dogs are recognized viz. ______, _____ and _____ type. (haemorrhagic, icteric, uremic type)

94. Three kinds of antigens are used for identification of Salmonallas, viz. ____, _________ and ____________ antigens. (O-somatic, H-flagellar, F-fimbrial antigens)

95. Streptococcus equii possesses a protein antigen called ________ and associated with __________. (protein M, purpurahaemorrhagiae/antiphagocytic - variation in virulence)

96. Mastitis means inflammation of ______ of the mammary gland regardless of the ______. (paranchyma, cause)

97. Clostridium chauvoei produces a number of toxins, of which, the most important and having necrotising property is __________ toxin. (alpha toxin/exotoxins)

98. Complications of strangles occur as a result of ____ and ____ formation in other organs. (abscess formation, immune complex with erythrocytes)

99. Tetanus bacilli remain ____________ at the site of introduction and ______ invade surrounding tissues. (localized, do not)

100. In typical cases of black leg in cattle, a definite diagnosis can be made on the __________ and ___________. (clinical signs, necropsy findings)

101. In lambs the course of enterotoxaemia is very ______ often less than ______ and never more than ______. (acute, 2 hrs, 12 hrs)

102. Brucella abortus is facultative _____________ bacterium and can survive and grow in the host _____________ and epithelial cells. (intracellular, macrophages/phagocytic cells)

103. Brucella abortus has a predilection for the pregnant uterus, udder, testicles and also for the ___________, ________ and _____________. (placenta, foetus, joint capsules/bursae)

104. Skin glanders is otherwise known as ______________. (farcy)

105. Sheep unit maintained near a lake with molluscus during summer showed the following: few sheep lagged behind, had increased temperature (103 - 107⁰F), had abdominal pain, died suddenly at night, necropsy showed darkness of the inside of the skin. History of heavy feeding of grains. What is your tentative diagnosis is __________. (enterotoxemia)

106. The main method of preventing the disease caused due to ______________________ organism is in feeder lambs is to stop them to over eating. The grain ration for them should be gradually increased as the lambs become accustomed to it. (clostridial infection / Cl.perfringens type D)

107. A heifer died suddenly without any clinical sign. Carcass blotted quickly. On incision of muscle of flank; showed characterised dark appearance with metallic sheen and had rancid odour. What is your tentative diagnosis. (Black Quarter)

108. “Tetaniferic regions” have _____________________ type of soil favouring anaerobes. (alkaline)

109. ______________________ is the only vaccine-preventable disease that is not communicable but acquired through environmental exposure to the spores in humans. (tetanus)

110. ____________________ and ________________________ are the two tests that are carried out in our University to diagnose leptospirosis. (Dark field microcopy, MAT)

111. Blackleg is an acute infectious disease caused by ______________________ characterized by ______________________ and ____________________. (Cl.chouvoei, gangrenous and emphysematous myositis)

112. Black quarter in cattle occurs between the age groups of _________ and ___________. (6 months and 2 yrs)

113. _______________________ in rams a form of malignant edema in which the lesions are restricted to the head is mostly caused by _________________. (Big head/swollen head)

114. __________ is an acute infectious disease of sheep caused by _______________ and characterized by inflammation of abomasal wall, toxemia and high mortality. (Braxy, Cl.septicum)

115. Tetanus is characterized by ______________________spasms resulting from action of _______________ on the central nerve system. (muscular spasm, tetanospasmin)

116. In horses short term prophylaxis can be achieved by injecting _________________ against tetanus. (tetanus toxoids)

117. Infectious necrotic hepatitis is an acute toxemia caused by ___________ and is mainly associated with _____________. (Cl.nouvi, liver fluke infestations)

118. Struck is caused by ________ affecting adult sheep particularly when feed is abundant. (Cl.perfringens type C)

119. Pulpy kidney disease in sheep results due to multiplication of _________________ in the _____________________ and production of ______________________. (Cl.perfringens type D, duodenum, epsilon toxin)

120. Septicemic pasteurellosis of cattle is caused by _________ type ______________ in the African continent and type ___________ in the other regions in the world. (Pasteurella multocida, Carter E, Carter B)

121. Pathogenesis of leptospiral infection is more severe in _____ host than the ______ host. (accidental hosts, primary maintenance hosts)

122. After an attack of strangles has subsided _____________________ may occur due to the development of sensitivity to streptococcal protein. (pupura haemorrhagiea)

123. According to “Glanders and Farcy Act 1899” whoever refuses or neglect to comply with any notice issued by the inspector shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extended to ________ or with fine which may extended to ___________ or both. (one month, Rs.50/-)

124. For detection of leptospirosis from tissues or urinary specimen, _________ and _______ are highly suitable. (liver and kidney)

125. Most important changes in the milk of mastitis affected animals are changes of ______, changes of ______ and presence of large numbers of ___________. (colour, consistency, leukocytes)

126. In the early stages of the acute form of swine erysipelas there will be first leucocytosis followed by a ________ and a __________. (leukopenia, lymphocytosis)

127. Avian pasteurellosis is caused by ______, _________ and ___________. (Y.ruckerecoltica, P.anatipestifer, Y.ruckeri)

128. Tetanus is characterized by _______, ___________ and ___________. (muscular spasm, convulsion and death)

129. Incision of black quarter affected muscle mass reveals the presence of dark, discolored tissue with ___________ and a __________ on the cut surface. (gas – air bubbles and metallic sheen)

130. Transmission of pasteurellae probably occurs by __________ of coughed up or exhaled by animals. (sputum)

131. Malta fever or ________ is caused by ___________ in man. (mediterranian fever, Brucella abortus)

132. ___________ test is used to certify the skin and hide free from __________. (Ascoli’s thermoprecipitation test, anthrax)

133. _________ and _________ are the toxins released by Clostridium tetani. (Tetanospasmin, tetanolysin)

134. Infectious necrotic hepatitis is often associated with ___________ infection. (liver fluke)

135. In brucellosis, a tube agglutination titre ____ is considered to be positive in endemic area. (80 IU)

136. __________ biopsy is a useful method to detect Johne’s disease. (rectal pinch biopsy)

137. Skin lesions in swine erysipelas is termed ___________. (diamond skin disease)

138. Anthrax spore vaccine is given to elephants by ______ route, the dose being _____ ml. (s/c, 1ml – 10 million viable spores)

139. The ______ and ________ tests are being successfully used for the identification of Salmonella pullorum / Salmonella gallinarum.

140. _________ is the principle cause of environmental mastitis. (E.coli)

141. In anthrax there is a absence of _______ at necropsy. (rigor mortis)

142. Tetanus bacilli remain ________ at the site of introduction and _______ invade surrounding tissues. (viable, do not)

143. Failure of the ______, absence of ________ and presence of ______ are the most important necropsy finding in anthrax. (blood to clot, rigor mortis, oozing of unclotted tarry coloured blood from all natural orifices)

Note:

Please let me know whether there are any mistakes.
Please contribute some questions which you think difficult (write in comments) or send it to yourvoice2me@yahoo.com

Veterinary Parasitology – A refresher..

2010-07-07T00:17:00.001-07:00

Credit: Contributed by Dr.Viswanathan,M.V.Sc.

1. No metacercarial phase - Schistosomiasis

2. Measly pork - T.solium

3. Measly beef - T.saginata

4. Punced ulcers in abomasum - Theileriosis

5. Babesiosis - Transovarian transmission

6. E.necatrix - Intestinal coccidiosis

7. VLM - T. canis

8. Hydatidosis - E.granulosis

9. Fascioliasis - Metacercariae

10. E.tenella - Caecal coccidiosis

11. Filariasis - Insect vector

12. Miracidium - Schistosomes

13. Red water disease - Babesiosis

14. Monocytes - Ehrlichia

15. Erythrocytes - Theileriosis

16. Amitraz - Demodex

17. Snails - Copper sulfate

18. Gapeworm of poultry - S.trachea

19. Quinapyramine sulphate - Antricide prosalt

20. Neutrophils - Hepatazoan canis

21. Clay pipe cirrhosis - Fascioliasis

22. Congestive heart failure - Dirofilaria immitis (heartworm)

23. Tachyzoites - Toxoplasma gondii

24. Avascular granuloma - S.nasale

25. Dictyocaulus arnfield - Horses & Donkeys

26. Lung worms of cattle & buffalo- D.viviparus

27. Koch’s Blue body - Lymph node

28. Trypanosomiasis - Chancre

29. Buparvaquone - Theileria

30. Babesiosis - Berenil

31. D.vivvparousi - Lung worm

32. Tapeworm - Ancylostomiasis

33. Transtadial - Bovine anaplasmosis

34. H.contortus - Self-cure phenomenon

35. Ascariasis - Piperazine

36. Punched ulcers in abomasun - Theileriosis

37. Fascioliasis - Pulpy kidney disease

38. Strongylus - Colic

39. Babesiosis - Berinil

40. Oxyuris - Perineum

41. Strongyles - Colic

42. Toxocara - Visceral larva migrans

43. Fascioliasis - Triclobendazole

44. Colostrum - Lactogenic immunity

45. Dermacenter sp. - Lyme disease

46. Ctenocephalides sp. - Dipyllidium

47. Culicoides sp. - Blue tongue

48. Aedes sp. - Dirofilaria

49. Phlebotamus sp. - Leishmaniasis

50. Musca sp. - Thelezia

51. Rhipicephalus sp. - Ehrlichiosis

52. Amblyoma sp. - Theileriosis

53. Lucilia sp. - Pizzle rot

54. Beetles - Spirocerca

55. Milk spot - Ascarid infection

56. Oriental sore - Leishmaniasis

57. Equine chancre - Trypanosomiasis

58. Kidney worm - Stephanurus

59. Mange - Otodectes

60. Sore hump - Stomoxys

61. Turning sickness - Cryptosporidiosis

62. Heart water - Amblyoma

63. Hypobiosis - Toxocara

64. Ctenocephalides sp - Dipylidium

65. Meischners tubes - Sarcocystitis

66. Larvicide - DDT

67. Kidney worm - Stephanuriasis

68. False gid - Oestrus ovis infection

69. Guinea worm infection - Dracanculosis

70. Spirocerca lupi - Dung beetle

71. Babesiosis - Diminazene aceturate

72. Amitraz - Demodicosis

73. Ehrlichia canis - Monocytes

74. Trypanosomiasis - Antriside prosalt

75. Antigenic shift - Influenza A

76. Hydatid disease - Stray dogs

77. Kidney worm - Stephanuriasis

78. Texas fever - Babesiosis

79. Sabin-Feldman dye test - Toxoplasmosis

80. Fowl tick - Borrelia anserina

81. Glossina - Tsetse fly

82. E.canis - Kennel tick

83. Fasciola - Liver fluke

84. L.donovani - Visceral leishmaniasis

85. L.tropica - Cutaneous leishmaniasis

86. Xenodiagnosis - T.cruzi

87. Baermann apparatus - Larvae of lung worm

88. ‘Lung fluke’ - Paragonimus

89. Setaria labiato-papillosa - ‘Kumri’

90. ‘Liver rot’ - Fascioliasis

91. Trichuri ovis - Whip worm

92. Oxyuris equi - False whip worm

93. Theileriosis - Koch’s Blue body

94. Plug feeders - Amphistomiasis

95. Cysticercosis storm - E.hystolytica

96. Carbomate - Poultry ectoparasiticide

97. Bovine coccidiosis - Decoquinate

98. Mediterranean theileriosis - Hyaloma

99. Habronemiasis - 'summer sore'

100. Oestrus ovis - False gid

101. D.immitis - Dog heart worm

102. Moniezia - Forage mite

103. H.contortus - Barber's pole worm

104. A.suum - Milk spot

105. Fasciola hepatica - Lymnaea truncatula

106. Schistosoma - Spindle shaped eggs

107. Taenia - Cysticercus

108. Echinococcus - Hydatid sand

109. Typanosome - Chancre

110. Red stomach worm - H.contortus

111. Cyathostomes - Small strongyles of horses

112. Habronemiasis - ‘Summer sore’

113. Leishmaniasis - ‘Oriental sore’

114. D.viviparus - Pilopholus fungus

115. Esophagostomiasis - ‘Pimply gut’

116. Trypanosomiasis - Antigenic variation

117. T.multiceps - 'Gid'

118. O.ovis - ‘False gid’

119. Fascioliasis - Triclabendazole

120. Plug feeders - Amphistomiasis

121. Fetal infection - Vertical transmission

122. “Swimmer’s itch” - Schistosomiasis

123. Gape worm - Syngamus

124. Lymnea - Intermediate host

125. Nitroxynil - Anthelmintic

126. Endoscopy - Spirocercosis

127. Ionophore compound - Coccidiosis

128. Babesiosis - Premunity

129. Acute venacaval syndrome - D.immitis

130. Melophagus ovinus - Sheep-ked

131. Babesiosis - Berinil

132. Transtadial - Theileriosis

133. Chaga’s disease - Trypanosoma cruzi

134. Creeping erruption - Ancylostoma braziliense

135. Coitus - Trypanasoma equiperdum

136. Babesia - Infected blood

137. Chagas’ disease - Trypanosoma cruzi

138. Coitus - Trypanosoma equiperdum

139. Verminous pneumonia - Swine influenza virus

140. Metastrongyles apri - Irradiated L2 larvae

141. Ascaris suum - Thumps

142. Hydatidosis - Echinococcus granulosus

143. Congestive heart failure - Dirofilaria immitis

144. Lung worm - Dictyocaulus viviparus

145. Milk spot in the liver - Ascaris suum

146. Self-cure phenomenon - Haemonchus contortus

147. ‘False-gid’ - Oestrus ovis

148. Creeping eruption - Ancylostoma caninum

149. Pin worm - Oxyuris equi

150. Whip worm - Trichuris ovis

151. Nasal vein - Schistosoma nasalis

152. Equine chancres - Trypanosomiasis

153. Monocytes - Ehrlischiosis

154. Coffee coloured urine - Babesiosis

155. Hydatidosis - Casoni’s skin test

156. Theileriosis - Ulcers in abomasum

157. Hypobiosis - Cyathostomes

158. Strongyles of sheep - Chabertina spp.

159. ‘Creeping eruption’ - Ancylostoma brazilienze

160. Visceral larval migrans - Toxocara canis

161. Piperazine - Ascariasis

162. Haemonchosis - Hypobiosis

163. Toxoplasmosis - 4 sporocysts - 2 sprozoites

164. Eimeria sp. - 2 sporocysts - 4 sporozoites

165. Antigenic variation - Trypanosomiasis

166. Storage of water for 72 hours - Schistosomiasis

167. ‘Kala-azar’ - Leishmania donovani

168. ‘Oriental sore’ - Leishmania tropica

169. Koch’s Blue body - Theileriosis

170. Babesiosis - Red-water

171. Surra - T.evansi

172. Echinococcus - Arecholine Hcl

173. T.canis - VLM

174. ‘Bottle jaw’ - Fascioliasis

175. Cutaneous Leishmaniasis - Leishmania tropica L.donovani

176. A.braziliense - CLM

177. ‘Pimply gut’ - Esophagostomum sp

178. Red worm - Haemonchus

179. L2 - Ascariasis

180. Trichostrongylosis - Scour worm

181. Spinal cord - ‘Kumri’

182. Iodine - Thelaziasis

183. Egg with terminal plug at both end- Trichuris

184. T.canis - Transcolastral

185. Lung worm infestation - Verminous pneumonia

186. Clay pipe liver - Fascioliasis

187. Heterakis - Black head

188. Paratenic host - Toxocara

189. Humpy back - Esophagostomosis

190. Ascaris suum - milk spots

191. Echinococcus - Praziquantel

192. Strongylus - Colic

193. Ascariasis - Piperazine

194. Casoni’s test - Echinococcosis

195. Heterakis - Black head

196. Strongyles of sheep - Chabertina Species.

197. 'Liver rot' - 'Black disease

198. Periparturient rise - Haemonchosis

199. Actinobody - 'Miracidium

200. Self-cure - Haemonchus contortus

Note:

Please let me know whether there are any mistakes.
Please contribute some questions which you think difficult (write in comments) or send it to yourvoice2me@yahoo.com

FEW NOTABLE POINTS ON RVF & LOUPING ILL

2009-07-07T03:44:00.001-07:00

Credit: Contributed by one of our fellow vet

1. Rift valley fever is caused by

a. bunya virus b. nairo virus c. hanta virus d. phlebo virus

2. Abortion in ewes and deaths in lambs are often noticed with

a. Rift valley b. RP c. FMD d. blue tongue

3. Rift valley fever can infect the following species except

a. sheep and goat b. Pigs c. cattle d. man

4. Rift valley fever is transmitted mainly by

a. aerosol route b. Ingestion c. Vectors d. skin penetration

5. Hepatitis in calves and lambs, high mortality rate, abortion in ewes, and influenza like disease in man should be suspected for

a. influenza virus b. Rift valley fever (RVP) c. FMD d. None of the above

6. The following is not a feature of RVF

a. high temperature b. abortion

c. hepatic encephalopathy d. buccal erosions and diarrhoea

7. Specimen of choice for isolation of RVFV

a. blood during viremia b. liver c. placenta d. any one of the above

8. RVFV can be isolated in

a. chicken embryos b. mouse brain cell cultures

c. foetal monkey lung cells d. vero cells

e. any one of the above

9. RVFV agglutinate the RBC of

a. chicken b. Mouse c. guinea pig d. all the above

10. Live attenuated virus vaccine for RVFV has the disadvantages of

I not highly effective

II the duration of protection is very loss

III chances for reversal to virulent form

IV abortogenic and teratogenic

a. ii alone b. ii and iii c. iii and iv d. I and iv

11. Louping ill is caused by

a. Flavi virus b. Pertivirus c. Hepatitis c virus d. Rubi virus

12. Louping ill virus is closely related to

Russian spring –summer encephalitis virus

Turkey sheep encephalitis virus

Spanish sheep encephalitis virus

None of the above

All the above

13. The Louping –ill is transmitted by

a. Ixodes ticks b. droplet infection

c. through milk d. all the above

14. Louping ill is mainly a disease of

a. Sheep b. goat c. cattle d. mouse

15. High fever, muscular tremor, in co-ordination bounding gait are characteristic of

a. tetanus b. Rabies c. Louping – ill d. coenurus cerebralis

16. Maintenance host for Louping ill

a. pigs b. cattle c. mouse d. goat

17. Following is used for confirmation of louping all virus.

a. HI b. CFI

c. ELISA d. avidin-biotin complex immuno peroxidase technique.

18. influenza like disease and meningo encephalitis in human is caused by

a. RVF b. Louping ill c. Rabies d. yellow fever

19. Reservoir host fox louping ill,

a. Pigs b. Goat c. grouse d. deer

20. Transmission of louping ill in ticks is by

a. Transtadial b. transovarion c. both d. no tick transmission

Note:

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FEW FACTS ON ANAPLASMOSIS

2009-06-27T07:22:00.001-07:00

Credit: Contributed by one of our fellow vet

1. South African gall sickness is otherwise called

a. Ehrlichiosis b. Anaplasmosis

c. Babesiosis d. Both a and b

2. Anaplasmosis is one of the ----------- diseases

a. Bacterial b. Viral

c. Protozoal d. Rickettsial

3. -------- is lack in Anaplasma marginale

a. Cell membrane b. Cytoplasm

c. Cell wall d. both b and c

4. Anaplasma can be destroyed by heating at

a. 60ºC for 60 min. b. 45ºC for 50 min.

c. 40ºC for 5 min. d. 35ºC for 10 min.

5. Anaplasmosis is transmitted by

a. Tabanus spp. b. Stomoxys spp.

c. Mosquitoes d. all the above

6. In anaplasmosis, lesions are more profound in the

a. Reticulo-endothelial system b. Nervous system

c. Respiratory system d. Urinary system

7. On blood film examination, which one of the parasites present in the margin of R.B.Cs

a. Ehrlichia bovis b. Ehrlichia canis

c. Anaplasma marginale d. Theileria annulata

8. Card agglutination test and Bentonite flocculation test are the diagnostic tests for

a. Rhinosporidiasis b. Candidiasis

c. Aflatoxicosis d. Anaplasmosis

9.Anaplasma spp. are obligate -----------parasite

a. Extra-cytoplasmic b. Intra-erythrocytic

c. Intra-cytoplasmic d. None of the above

10. Anaplasmosis is an ---------- in tropical and subtropical countries

a. Sporadic b. Endemic

c. Epidemic d. Pandemic

11. Anaplasma marginale and A. Centrale are most commonly affect the

a. Cattle b. Sheep

c. Goat d. Horse

12. Anaplasma ovis will not affect the

a. Sheep b. Goat

c. Dog d. Cattle

13. The efficient mechanical vector for anaplasmosis is

a. Musca spp. b. Culex spp.

c. Tabanids d. both a and b

14. Risk factors for anaplasmosis

a. White coat b. Black coat

c. Red coat d. b and c

15. Anaplasma may infect

a. Immature erythrocytes b. Mature erythrocytes

c. Developing erythrocytes d. a and c

16. Haemoglobinuria is absent in

a. Babesiosis b. Theileriosis

c. Anaplasmosis d. a and b

17. Tetracycline is most effective for the treatment of

a. Fascioliasis b. Trypanosomiasis

c. a and b d. Anaplasmosis

18. Imidocarb and estradiol are effective for the treatment of

a. Anaplasmosis b. Anthrax

c. FMD d. IBRT

19.It is better to use ----------- type of vaccine against anaplasmosis

a. Live vaccine b. Killed and adjuvanted vaccine

c. both a and b d. a only

20. The risk of using live anaplasma vaccine is

a. Neonatal isoerythrolysis b. Phagocyte lysis

c. Neonatal leukocytosis d. b and c

21. Which of the following is least consistent with Anaplasmosis?

a. Fever b. Icterus.

c. Hemoglobunuria d. Abortion.

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TNPSC VAS 2009 ANSWER KEY NEW WITH PROBABLE CUT OFF

2009-06-11T08:42:00.000-07:00

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BACTERIAL MORPHOLOGY A LOOK

2009-06-11T05:20:00.000-07:00

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TNPSC VAS / JVA KEY 2009

2009-06-08T09:00:00.000-07:00

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MEDLEY OF QUESTIONS

2008-05-19T19:59:00.001-07:00

Bacterial disease in which Pasteur's vaccine used- Anthrax
'Para anthrax' in pigs caused by- Cl. septicum
Foot rot in sheep is caused by - Bacterioides nodosus
Duck Plague is the synonym for –Duck Viral Enteritis
The indistinct margins of a radiograph due to a large focal spot of X-ray beam -penumbra.
The optimum temperature of developing and fixing solutions in radiography is -68F
Avian influenza virus has
8 gene segments
M. leprae can be cultivated in vivo only in- Armadillo
State of unresponsiveness towards an antigen is - Anergy
The cholinergic drug that cannot be hydrolyzed by AchE is -carbachol
The penetrating power of X-ray beam depends on - kvp
Anaesthesia produced by combination of drugs is termed as-Balanced anaesthesia
Antigen-Antibody complexes present in dentrites of Dentritic cells- Iccosomes
BCG is an attenuated form of - Mycobacterium bovis
Vitamin C is used as an antidote to ---Nitrate-----poisoning
Oseltamivir is the drug of choice against- Bird flu in humans
The species of animal in which Ivermectin crosses the BBB- Equines
The only anaesthetic agent known to be carcinogenic- fluoroxene
The drugs contraindicated in parakeets & cats respectively are- procaine & morphine
The species most sensitive to the ill-effects of xylazine - cattle
A pantropic virus that commonly affects Canines- Canine distemper virus
Symplasma stage in submucosa is seen in- Johne's Disease
Oestrogenic mycotoxin causing reproductive disorders in swine is- Zearalenone
'Blue eye' or Rubarth's Disease is the synonym for- Infectious Canine Hepatitis
Which is the most potent opiate analgesic? carfentanil
Name a benzodiazepine antagonist- flumazenil
Ketamine is contraindicated in head injuries as it reduces -Intra cranial pressure
The subtype of Avian flu virus causing human casualties around the world- H5N1
Mad cow disease is caused by- Prions
Cold enrichment procedure is done for the isolation of - Listeria
'J' chain is present in immunoglobulins- IgA and IgM
In the body, Chloral hydrate is converted to - tricholoroethanol
Name one anaesthetic agent which is steroid in nature- Althesin
Dose of Anthrax vaccine- 1ml s/c
Anaphylatoxins are- C3a and C5a
The specific antidote of Morphine is- Nalorphine
Dunkop (pulmonary) and Dikkop (cardiac) are two forms of - African Horse Sickness
'Wire loop' lesions in the glomerular basement membrane seen in- SLE
The drug used to stabilize mast cells- Cromolyn sodium
Hyaluronidase-- enzyme used with local anaesthetics to promote its diffusion and absorption
Milbemycin oxime is obtained from-Streptomyces hygroscopicus
Name a suture material that glows in darkness easy to handle in poor light- Flurofil
Cardinal Signs of Inflammation was propounded by- Cornelius Celsus
FMD virus multiplies in the ------Str.spinosum--------- layer of epidermis
Father of Immunology is- Edward Jenner
Lamsiekte in cattle and sheep is caused by - Cl.botulinum type D.
Vaccine strain of B.anthracis is - Aviurlent and Non capsulated
Monsell's suture technique is used in - Enteroanastomosis
Ethylene oxide is a gaseous agent used for sterilization kills microorganisms by-alkylation..
VitC is necessary for hydroxylation of proline & lysine in synthesis of -collagen
'Bomb burst' or 'Umbrella like' colonies are characteristic of - Listeria
Influenza virus is typed based on Matrix and Nucleocapsid
antigen
The conversion of DHFA to THFA is blocked by- Trimethoprim
Examples of pencillinase resistant pencillins- Methicillin and Cloxacillin
First immunoglobulin to be synthesized in Neonates- IgM.
'Abortion storms' in sheep is caused by- Campylobacter foetus
Vaccine strain used for prophylaxis of IBD infection-Georgia
Which is the only benzimidazole drug that wont inhibit Fumarate reductase- mebendazole
Name an anthelminthic which was previously used to treat human gout- piperazine
The experimental animal used for FMD research is - Guinea pig
The no: of Capsomers in Adenoviruses is- 252
The source of Vero cell line is - African Green Monkey (Kidney)
Heat resistant ability of sporulated bacterium is due to the compound-Ca dipicholinate
The generation of monoclonal antibodies involves-Salvage pathway
Antibiotic which can also function as an anthelminthic agent is- Hygromycin B
Ivermectin toxicity can be reversed by using - Picrotoxin
Cucurbitin, an active principle in Pumpkin seed is used for the treatment for-Cestodiasis
Name a live vaccine previously used against rabies- Flury's LEP & HEP
Periarticular lymphoid sheath (PALS) is populated by T lymphocytes are seen in-Spleen
Habel's testing (mouse test) is done for the diagnostic assessment of- Rabies
Most immunogenic viral polypeptide of FMD virus is - VP1
Rabbits show genetic tolerance towards- Atropine
The diuretic that cannot be given along with aminoglycoside antibiotics- Furosemide
The antibiotic Gentamicin is obtained from- Micromonosporum purpureum
Ochratoxin primarily causing renal impairment is produced by- Aspergillus ochraceus
Name the smallest animal virus- Porcine circovirus (17-20nm)., FMDV is of 28-30nm size.
Pyometra in bitches is caused by –E.coli
Strawberry foot rot is caused by-Dermatophilus congolensis
Drug of choice for mycoplasmosis- Tylosin
'Tennis racket' shaped spores are present in- Cl. chauvoei
Psittacosis or Ornithosis in birds is caused by- Chlamydophila psittaci
The proton pump inhibitor used to treat Zollinger-Ellison syndrome-Omeprazole
Rabies virus (bullet shaped) belongs to the genus- Lyssa virus
'Bull Nose' in pigs is caused by- Fusobacterium necrophorus
DNA virus that codes for reverse transcriptase enzyme- Hepadna virus
Chronic Respiratory Disease in birds is caused by - Mycoplasma gallisepticum
Immediate precursor of all sex steroids- Pregnenalone
In avian tuberculosis the lesion are confined to - GI tract
Name a commonly used AchE reactivator- Pralidoxime.
Piperonyl butoxide is used as a synergist along with -Pyrethroids
HVT is the vaccine strain used against- Marek's Disease
In B.abortus, the ratio between LPS antigens A and M is - 20:1
Kume and Page Scheme is used for the classification of- Haemophilus
'Reverse Genetics' is nowadays used for the production of vaccine strains of - Avian flu virus
Drug of choice against Theileriosis is -Buparvaquone
With H&E staining the calcified tissue appears -Blue
The toxic level of Aflatoxin in ducklings is- 0.03ppm
Summer Mastitis in cattle is caused by -C. pyogenes
Heart Water disease is caused by- Cowdria ruminantium
EMJH medium is commonly used for the cultivation of -Leptospira
Hoti's test is used for detecting -Str. agalactiae mastitis
Infectious Bulbar Paralysis is the synonym for- Psuedorabies
Sulphonamides are metabolized by acetylation in ruminants and glucuronidation in canines.
Scythe shaped spleen is seen in -Horses
The most important symptom of anthrax in dogs is -Gastroenteritis.
Braxy in sheep is caused by -Cl. septicum.
The microbes that have the ability to survive pasteurization temp is -Listeria and Coxiella
Techoic acid is present in the cell wall of - Gram + bacteria
Route of inoculation in chicken embryos is intravenous for Blue tongue virus
'Darling disease' is caused by - Histoplasma
New Jersey, Indiana and Trinidad are strains of - Vesicular stomatitis virus
Diene staining is used for - Mycoplasma
Aspergillus flavus in SDA produces-Yellowish green colonies
Cork screw motility is shown by -Campylobacter
Turkey coryza which is highly contagious is caused by - Bordetella avium
Castanida and Machiavello staining are employed for detecting- Chlamydia
The antibodies used against the Rh antigen to prevent Erythroblastosis foetalis- Rhogam
The immunoglobulin known as 'Reagin'- IgE
Macrophages present in Kidney are known as- Mesangial cells
Interleukin that suppresses the immune response is - IL-10
Etiological agent of silage disease is – Listeria.
Smallest living organism of individual existence- Mycoplasma
Bacillus anthracis have medusa head like colonies in -Nutrient agar
Clostridium perfringens type A in animals causes- Gas gangrene
The class of immunoglobulin that first appears in primary immune response- IgM
Polypeptide chain called secretory component is present in- IgA
Docking in dogs can predispose to a conditon called- Perineal Hernia
Hoflund's syndrome is the synonym for- Vagal indigestion
Vitamin K dependent clotting factors are- 2,7,9 and 10.
Limber neck in poultry is caused by- Clostridium botulinum type C
The amino acid tryptophan act as growth promoter for the microbe- Erysepelothrix
The most potent Aflatoxin is- B1
The cytolytic product of CTL cells that forms transmembrane pores in target cells- Perforins
Autoimmune disease in which Ig's are formed against Ach receptors- Myasthenia gravis
World's first veterinary school in - 1762, Lyons, Paris
The dog breed that has genetic predisposition for skin tumor- Boxer
Gavard's muscle is the synonym of -Int.obl. muscle layer of stomach.
Ventral bending (concave) of the spinal column is called- Lordosis
A and M antigens are absent in- B.canis & B.ovis
Foothill abortion / BEA in cattle is caused by- Chlamydophila psittaci
The antibacterial system naturally present in milk is- Lactoperoxidase system
Marsupialization in bitches is done usually to treat- Pyometra
Dose of Ivermectin is – 200 micrograms/Kg body weight
The breed of cattle which has strong predisposition for Eye Cancer- Hereford
Male dog urinates like bitch in - Cystitis
Knott test is done to detect Dirofilariosis in dogs
Half life of IgG is - 20-21 days
Benign tumor of gingiva is called - Epulis
The drug used to contract gall bladder (cholecystokinetic)- Ceruletide
The type of paralysis produced by the drug piperazine on worms is – flaccid
Cart wheel shape chromatin is seen – Plasma cells
The most abundant buffer system in plasma- bicarbonate buffer
The smallest animal cell has a diameter of – 2 microns
The Fc fragment of Ig's can be recovered by digestion with the enzyme- Papain
Most common respiratory pathogen in canines - Bordetella bronchiseptica (kennel cough)
Rabbit ileal loop assay is commonly done for the detection of - ET E.coli
Haemo-lymphnodes are commonly seen in - Ruminants
Clonal selection theory of antibody production was proposed by- Burnet
Biphasic fever in dogs is indicative of - Canine distemper
Ramstedt's surgical procedure is performed to correct- Pyloric stenosis
The immediate precursor of thrombocytes are- Megakaryocytes
Rouleaux formation in blood smear is a common finding in – Felines
Substance required for platelet aggregation is – Thromboxane
The interleukin commonly referred as chemokine is - IL-8
Rectal pinch test is done for the diagnosis of - Johne's disease
Surgical cat gut is often sterilized by- Isopropyl alcohol or ethylene oxide
Giant kidney worm of Dogs is - Dioctophyme renale
The sedimentation coefficient of IgG is 7S and IgM is 19S
Principal metabolic pathway in RBC is- Glycolysis
Tyzzer's disease in foals and lab animals is caused by – Bacillus piliformis
Avian spirochetosis is caused by – Borrelia anserina
Colopexy is used to treat- Recurrent rectal prolapse
Mouse ascites method is used to production of - Monoclonal antibodies
The dog breed having genetic predisposition to cardiac hypertropy- Grey hound
Suture technique used for uterine stump closure- Parker kerr method
In humans MHC is referred to as HLA complex whereas in mice it is H-2 complex
"Paple" shaped abdomen is diagnositic of – Vagus Indigestion
Tenesmus followed by bloody dysentery in calves is characteristic of – Eimeria zuernii
The coccidial organism commonly found in felines and canines – Isospora (Eimeria absent)
"Slime balls" ie., cercarial aggregation seen in- Dicrocoelium infection.
"Grunt" on applying pressure on xiphoid region in cattle is indicative of- TRP
Salmon poisoning in dogs caused by -Neorickettsia helmintheca
Antibody having least half life is - IgE
Genetically mutant mice lacking NK cells is called- Biege (Athymic mice- 'Nude')
Salivary cyst found in sublingual duct is- Ranula
Membrane bound IgM is a - Monomer
Class II MHC restricted cells are- T helper cells
Lyme disease is caused by – Spirochete, Borrelia burgdoeferi, (IH- Ixodes)
Antidote for warfarin toxicity is – Vitamin K
The drug that intensifies the toxic effects of Warfarin is – Phenyl Butazone
The amino acid which is deficient in cats is - Taurine
Complement activation is predominantly mediated by - IgM
The compound used as gastric sedative in dogs is - Chloretone
The receptor for co-stimulating B7 molecules on APC is- CD28
Enteroplication is the surgical technique to correct- Intussusception
The antibody that can exist as monomer, dimer, trimer and tetramer- IgA.
Insulin like growth factor –I is also called as – Somatomedins
The diuretic with Aldosterone antagonistic action is – Spironolactone
The drug used to experimentally induce diabetes in dogs- Alloxan
Allopurinol is the drug of choice for the treatment of – Gout
In passive HA, chemical used to coat antigens in RBC- Tannic acid or chromium chloride.
Infectious RNA molecule of low molecular weight comes under the category- Viroids
Pink eye is caused by Moraxella bovis and Summer pink eye is caused by IBR virus
'Dew drop' colonies and satellite phenomenon is exhibited by- Haemophilus
9R is the vaccine strain of - Salmonella Gallinarum
Glaucoma, a condition of increased intra ocular pressure is treated using- Acetazolamide
Canrenone is the metabolite of – Spironolactone
Kanagawa reaction is shown by – Vibrio parahaemolyticum
SMEDI in pigs is caused by – Parvo Virus
"White Spotted" kidney is a sequelae to – Leptospirosis and E.coli infections
Infarcts in kidney of Swine is characteristic of – Erysipelas
In GI tract, the antigen transport is carried out by specialized cells called- 'M' cells
Infectious protein particles causing 'Scrapie' in sheep are called- Prions
The penicillin which is effective against pseudomonas infection- Carbenicillin
Burton's line in gums is indicative of - Lead poisoning
The drug that can replace Ivermectin in sensitive dogs- Milbemycin oxime
Jaagsiekte " Driving Sickness" in sheeps is caused by Retro virus
Jaagsiekte is Pulmonary adenomatosis and Visna-Maedi (Retro) is Progressive pneumonia
Farmer's Lung in cattle is caused by - Micropolyspora faeni
The virus having a unique 'double capsid'- Reovirus
Viral etiology of neoplasms were first reported by- Ellerman and Bang
The group specific antigen of ALV which is commonly used for COFAL test is -p27
Recombinant DNA technology was first developed by- Cohen and Boyer
Ephemeral fever (3 day sickness) is caused by - Rhabdovirus
"Facial Eczema" in cattle is caused by Pithomyces chartarum (fungus with toxin sporidesmin)
"Gall Sickness" is the synonym for- Anaplasmosis
Antigenic variation in avian influenza virus is largely due to- Genetic Shift
MAB technique for producing monoclonal Ig's was devised by- Kohler and Milstein
Bence Jones proteins (light chains of Ig) are present in urine in -Multiple myeloma
Rose-Waaler test is used for the detection of -Rheumatoid factor (IgM)
The dose of Heparin used as an anticoagulant is- 10-20 IU/ml
The media used to select the myeloma cells in MAB technique is- HAT medium
The site present in an antibody to which an antigen binds is called- Paratope
The vector for Reoviral Blue tongue in sheeps is- Culicoides spp
"Pizzle rot" (Ovine Posthitis) in sheeps is caused by- Corynebacterium renale
Gid, Sturdy, or Staggers is caused by-Coenurus cerebralis ( T. multiceps)
The most commonly used serological test ELISA was developed by- Engvall and Perlman
The gene for virulence in ND virus and AI virus are-Fusion gene and HA gene (respectively)
'Tigroid heart' in calves is characteristic of- FMD
Vascularization of Cornea is known as - Pannus
The lesion in eyes of horses due to leptospiral infection - Periodic Ophthalmia
"Blue eye" is the synonym for- Infectious Canine Hepatitis (adenovirus)
"Hot Spot" (pyotraumatic dermatitis) is caused by- Staphylococcus aureus & S. intermedius.
The interleukin often referred to as B cell growth factor is- IL-6
FMD virus belongs to the genus- Aphthovirus
'Dropped Sole' in horses is a condition due to- Chronic Laminitis
The etiological agent of Ephemeral fever in cattle is- Rhabdovirus
Feline pan leucopenia is caused by- Parvo virus
Avian Influenza is caused by Influenza A virus of the family- Orthomyxoviridae
The principal source of Interferon β is - Fibroblasts
SAT-1,2 and 3 are types of FMDV originated from- Africa
The interleukin responsible for class switching of IgM to IgG is - IL-4
The animal species that serves as " mixing vessel" for Avian and Mammalian flu is – Pig
Disinfectant of choice against Anthrax bacilli- Gluteraldehyde (2%)
HVT, the vaccine strain used against MDV (serotype I) belongs to- serotype III
In birds, Avulavirus is the causative agent of - Newcastle disease
The cell surface marker of memory T cells is- CD45RO
In ALV infection, the tumor development is due to activation of oncogene called- c-myc
Disinfectant of choice against FMD virus- Sodium Carbonate (4%)
Staphylorraphy and Uranoplasty are techniques used to correct- Cleft palate
Negri bodies for diagnosis of rabies can be detected using- Seller's stain
Malignant tumor of mesenchymal cells is referred as - Sarcoma

PHARMACOLOGY

2008-05-06T04:11:00.001-07:00

VETERINARY PHARMACOLOGY

1. Plasma protein to which majority of drugs bind is ---------

2. ----------- is the principal metabolic pathway for sulfonamide compounds

3. Precursor of endogenous catecholamines in the body is--------

4. Drug of choice in acute anaphylactic shock is ------

5. OP compound that interact with both esteratic and anionic site of acetylcholine esterase is -----

6. A racemic mixture of d-hyoscyamine and l-hyoscyamine is --------

7. What are soporifics?

8. The term "Anaesthesia" was coined by ------

9. Precursor of serotonin is ------

10. What are endorphins?

11. Species that require more amount of anaesthetics is-------

12. The avian species in which procaine is contraindicated is -----

13. In which breed of dogs thiobarbiturates are contraindicated?

14. Paralysis of ------ is a complication encountered in anaesthesia of Horse

15. Which stage of anaesthesia is bypassed by barbiturates?

16. Laryngyospasm during induction of anaesthesia is more common in -------

17. Specific treatment for malignant hyperthermia in Pigs caused by halothane is-----

18. Oxidation of chloroform to phosgene can be prevented by adding -----

19. Barbiturates are derivatives of -----------

20. Oxytetracycline is obtained from ------------

21. --------------- is a benzimidazole with antifungal property

22. Primary mechanism of action of Mebendazole is inhibition of --------- by worms

23. Wormicidal drug that can be given as immunomodulator at lower doses is -------

24. Two chemical components seen in Ivermectin are ----- and --------

25. Drug active against immature stages of Fascioa hepatica is -----------

26. Antidote for Cyanide poisoning was discovered by ---------

27. Organochlorine compound which does not accumulates in the body is ----------

28. The enzyme in haeme synthesis which is inhibited by lead poisoning is ---------

29. Conium maculatum is better known as ---------

30. Dose of BAL in Arsenic poisoning in Large animals is -----------

31. --------- is the metabolic product of Procaine

32. Give an example of a specific COX-2 inhibitor

33. Old Hen Test is used to detect ------------ potential of Organophoshate compounds

34. ------------------- is a type of retinal degeneration caused by Bracken Fern Poisoning

35. The specific antidote for Copper poisoning is ------------

36. Violent Dyspnoea "Thumping" is seen in pigs as a result of -----------

37. Animal species to which Benzene Hexa Chloride is highly toxic is -------

38. Highly potent Organophosporous compound is ---------

39. The synergists that is added to pyrethroid compounds in order to enhance its effect is ------

40. What are Burton's Lines?

41. Specific antidote for Nitrate poisoning is -----------

42. Gentamicin, the aminoglycoside drug is obtained from ---------

43. The Fungal toxin that causes reproductive problems in sows is --------

44. The anti BP drug Atenolol belongs to which group of Antiarrythmic Agents ?

45. Most potent H₂ Blocker is ----------

46. Most potent Local anaesthetic is---------

47. What does " Utectic Mixture " contain?

48. The most potent of all the Aflatoxins is------

49. Father of Pharmacology is ------

50. Izoniazid and Ethambutol are the drugs used in the treatment of --------

Solutions

1. albumin

2. Acetylation

3. phenylalanine

4. epinephrine

5. Echothiophate

6. Atropine

7. sleep inducers

8. Oliver Wendell Holmes

9. Tryptophan

10. Endogenous analgesics

11. Horse

12. Parakeet

13. Grey Hounds

14. facial nerve

15. Stage 2

16. cats

17. Dantrolene

18. 1% ethanol

19. Malonyl Urea

20. Streptomyces rimosus

21. Thiabendazole

22. Glucose uptake

23. Levamisole

24. B_1a and B_1b

25. Diamfenetide

26. K K Chen

27. Endosulfan

28. Aminolevulinic acid dehydratase

29. Hemlock

30. 3mg/kg @ 4hr interval deep i/m

31. PABA

32. Cefocoxib

33. Organo Phosphorous Induced Delayed Neurotoxicity

34. Bright blindness

35. D-penicillamine

36. Gossypol poisoning

37. cat

38. Parathion

39. Piperonyl Butoxide

40. Blue line in gums in lead poisoning

41. Methylene Blue

42. Micromonosporum purpureum

43. Zearalenone

44. Class 2

45. Famotidine

46. Bupivacaine

47. Prilocaine and Lidocaine

48. B₁

49. Rudolf Bucheim

50. Tuberculosis

PATHOLOGY

2008-04-12T04:14:00.001-07:00

VETERINARY PATHOLOGY

1. 'Punched out ulcers' in abomasum- pathognomonic lesion of ?

2. Negri bodies in cattle with rabies seen in ....

3. Father of pathological anatomy

4. Father of cellular pathology

5.Lysosome first demonstrated by.....

6. Most reactive free radical in inducing cell damage

7. Removal of damaged organelle during cell injury is called as .....

8. Component of cytoskeleton useful in tumor diagnosis

9. Eosinophilic, intracytoplasmic inclusion in liver in alcoholic liver disease

10. Condition in which impairment of phagocytic property of WBC occurs.

11. Best fixative for glycogen

12. Stains for glycogen (any two)

13. Macrophage laden with lipids in atherosclerosis called as....

14. Russel bodies seen in ....?

15. Partial or complete loss of melanocytes in the epidermis...

16.Pigments causing 'Brown Atrophy'

17. Aggregates of ferritin micelles called...

18. Heart failure cells are ......

19. Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia is indicative of .............jaundice.

20. Direct Van den berg reaction is indicative of ........jaundice

21. Color of faeces in obstructive jaundice

22. Hyperkeratosis in cattle common in which poisoning ?

23. Type of necrosis involved in hypoxic cell death in the CNS

24. Necrosis in which architectural details persist but cellular details are lost.

25.Enzymes important in apoptosis

26.Conditions in which PM clotting of blood doesn't occur.

27.Pathological calcification without derangement in blood calcium levels.

28. Special stain for demonstrating Calcium in tissues.

29. 'Tophi' is related to which disease ?

30. Condition characterized by green refrigence of Congo red stained sections under polarizing microscope.

31. Name the anaphylatoxins

32. Chemical mediators from arachidonic acid metabolism via cyclooxygenase pathway.

33. 'Triple response' in tissue inflammation was formulated by .....

34. Colloidal carbon technique is used in identifying .....

35. Name some SRS-A( slow reacting substances of anaphylaxis)

36. Cationic proteins produced by eosinophils toxic to parasites.

37. Suppurative inflammation of hair follicles caused by Staph. aureus

38. Diffuse spreading suppurative inflammation of connective tissues

39. Modified macrophages in case of granuloma are called ...

40. Granulation tissue is a hallmark of ......

41. Adhesive glycoproteins of Extra-cellular matrix.

42. Condition in which cardiac sclerosis/ cardiac cirrhosis occurs.

43. Alteration from a less specialized cell type to more specialized ones.

44. A malignant tumor which doesn't metastasize

45. Oncogenes discovered by.....

46. 'Sticker tumor' discovered by Novinsky is better known as ....

47. Reed Sternberg Cells are typical of ...

48. Horn cancer is most commonly seen in Bull or Bullocks ?

49. Black tongue/ canine pellagra is caused by......

50. Rodent ulcer is better known as ......

ANSWERS:

1.Theileriosis

2.Cerebellum

3.Antonio Benevieni

4.Rudolph Virchow

5.Novikoff

6.Hydroxyl radical

7.Autophagy

8.Intermediate filaments

9.Mallory body

10.Chediak Higashi syndrome

11.Non-aqueous fixatives(methyl alcohol)

12.Best carmine & PAS

13.Foam cell

14.Plasma cells

15.Vitiligo

16.Lipofuscin

17.Hemosiderin

18.Alveolar macrophage laden with Hemosiderin

19.Prehepatic jaundice

20. Obstructive jaundice

21. Grey / Clay color

22. Chlorinated naphthalene poisoning

23.Liquefactive necrosis

24. Coagulative necrosis.

25.Caspases

26.Anthrax & Sweet clover poisoning

27.Dystrophic calcification

28. Van Kossa's Silver nitrate

29.Articular gout

30.Amyloidosis

31.C_3a and C_5a

32.Thromboxane A2 and Prostaglandins

33. Sir Thomas Lewis

34. Leaking vessels in inflammation

35.Leukotrienes like LTC_4,LTD_4,LTE₄

36.Major Basic Proteins

37.Boils

38.Cellulitis

39.Epitheloid cells

40.Healing

41.Fibronectin & Laminins

42. Chronic general passive hyperemia

43.Metaplasia

44. Basal Cell Carcinoma

45.Michael Bishop& Harold Varmus

46.Canine Transmissible Venereal Tumor.

47.Hodgkin's disease

48.Bullock

49.Niacin deficiency

50. Basal cell carcinoma

Note:

Please let me know whether there are any mistakes.
Please contribute some questions which you think difficult (write in comments)

MICROBIOLOGY …. Updated REGULARLY

2008-04-12T03:25:00.001-07:00

VETERINARY MICROBIOLOGY

1. Koch's postulates was derived by using which bacterium ?

2. Kanagawa reaction is exhibited by...

3. Father of Microbiology

4. In presence of specific antibody, Streptococcus pneumoniae shows ------ reaction .

5. Father of Bacteriology

6. Small pox vaccine was developed by --------in the year1796.

7. A polymer of glycerol phosphate that is present only in G+ bacteria cell wall

8. Rabies vaccine was first done on

9. Loeffler and Frosch shares the credit of discovery of------

10. The only anti TB drug that has the ability to destroy the acid fastness of Mycobacterium

11. The bacteria that is used to evaluate the phenol coefficient using Rideal Walker method

12. Mastitis causing Str.agalactiae and Str. dysgalactiae are classified as group ----- and group---- respectively as per Lancefield classification.

13. The substance present normally in spores at high levels,but decreases during the favourable condition.

14. Greyish-white medusa head type of colony is shown by Bacillus anthracis in which medium ?

15. Chinese letter arrangement and metachromatin granules are features of ...

16. Agent that causes Summer Mastitis

17. Growth of E.rhusiopathiae is favoured by which aminoacid ?

18. Tuberculous lesions are prominent in digestive tract rather than in respiratory tract in ... ?

19. Etiological agent of Calf Diphtheria

20. Characteristic features of abortion in cattle caused by B.abortus

21.Type of vaccines used against brucellosis in calves & cows.

22. Kennel Cough in dogs caused by ... ?

23. Pasteurella, Yersinia and Listeria have one thing in common as part of their staining character.

24. Etiological agent of fowl coryza

25. Classification of Pasteurella species ?

26. The best medium for an enhanced growth of campylobacter

27. In Mc Conkeys agar, E.coli produces --------- colonies whereas Salmonella produces ------

28. Ringer and Gillespie medium is used for the growth of ....

29. 'Symptomatic anthrax is the synonym for....

30. Para anthrax in pigs is caused by ....

31. Gaint cells of Langhans are absent in T.B affecting which species ?

32. In H&E staining T.B calcification appear as....... color.

33. Epitheloid cells fuse to form syncytia and it enters ..........stage in Johne's diseases.

34. Among domestic species .......... is most susceptible to anthrax.

35. Condition in sheeps under 1year of age, affected by Cl.septicum due to toxaemia

36. Pulmonary Adenomatosis in sheeps by retrovirus is ........ whereas Cl.botulinum type D infection in cattle is .....

37.Dunkop and Dikkop are forms of .......

38 Diagnostic test for E.I.A

39. Inclusion bodies in Fowl pox is ...... and in cow pox is........

40. Instrument used to perform the Polymerase Chain Reaction

41. Ulcerative enteritis in poultry caused by ........

42. Infectious encephalomyelitis caused by Flavi virus transmitted by ixodes ricinus.

43 Granules present within the Guarnieri body.

44.Synonym for Infectious bulbar paralysis caused by Herpes.

45. Two medium used for the growth of mycoplasma.

46. In McFaydean reaction ,color of organism and capsule ?

47. Bursitis in horse caused by Brucella abortus

48. The etiological agent of 'Struck' in sheep

49. Bottle brush appearance in Gelatin stab is growth feature of .........

50. Visna/Maedi in sheep is caused by.........

ANSWERS :

1.Bacillus anthracis

2.Vibrio parahaemolyticum

3. Louis Pasteur

4. Quellung reaction

5. Robert Koch

6. Edward Jenner

7. Teichoic acid

8. Joseph Meister

9. FMD Virus

10. Izoniazid

11. Salmonella Typhi

12. B and C ; A is S. pyogenes

13. Calcium Dipicolinate

14. Nutrient Agar

15. Corynebacteria

16. Corynebacteria pyogenes

17. Tryptophan

18. Poultry

19. Fusobacterium Necrophorus

20. Necrotic placentitis and Leathery placenta

21. Strain 19 (living) and Strain 45/20(killed) respectively

22. Bordetella bronchiseptica

23. Bipolar staining

24. Haemophilus gallinarum

25. Robert's and Carter's serotyping

26. Thiol medium

27. Pink ; Colourless

28. Leptospira

29. Black Quarter

30. Clostridium septicum

31. Canines and Felines

32. Blue

33. Symplasma

34. Sheep

35. Braxy or Bradsot

36. Jaagsiekte ; Lamsiekte

37. African Horse Sickness

38. Coggin's Test

39. Bollinger bodies ; Guarnieri bodies

40. Thermocycler

41. Clostridium colinum

42. Louping ill

43. Paschen's granules

44. Psuedorabies/Mad Itch/Aujezky's disease

45. PPLO Agar and Frey's medium

46. Blue ; Pink

47. Poll Evil and Fistulous Withers

48. Clostridium perferinges Type C

49. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae and Clostridium perferinges

50. Retro virus.

Note:

Please let me know whether there are any mistakes.
Please contribute some questions which you think difficult (write in comments)