Credit: Contributed by one of our fellow vet 1. Rift valley fever is caused by a. bunya virus b. nairo virus c. hanta virus d. phlebo virus 2. Abortion in ewes and deaths in lambs are often noticed with a. Rift valley b. RP c. FMD d. blue tongue 3. Rift valley fever can infect the following species except a. sheep and goat b. Pigs c. cattle d. man 4. Rift valley fever is transmitted mainly by a. aerosol route b. Ingestion c. Vectors d. skin penetration 5. Hepatitis in calves and lambs, high mortality rate, abortion in ewes, and influenza like disease in man should be suspected for a. influenza virus b. Rift valley fever (RVP) c. FMD d. None of the above 6. The following is not a feature of RVF a. high temperature b. abortion c. hepatic encephalopathy d. buccal erosions and diarrhoea 7. Specimen of choice for isolation of RVFV a. blood during viremia b. liver c. placenta d. any one of the above 8. RVFV can be isolated in a. chicken embryos b. mouse brain cell cultures c. foetal monkey lung cells d. vero cells e. any one of the above 9. RVFV agglutinate the RBC of a. chicken b. Mouse c. guinea pig d. all the above 10. Live attenuated virus vaccine for RVFV has the disadvantages of I not highly effective II the duration of protection is very loss III chances for reversal to virulent form IV abortogenic and teratogenic a. ii alone b. ii and iii c. iii and iv d. I and iv 11. Louping ill is caused by a. Flavi virus b. Pertivirus c. Hepatitis c virus d. Rubi virus 12. Louping ill virus is closely related to Russian spring –summer encephalitis virus Turkey sheep encephalitis virus Spanish sheep encephalitis virus None of the above All the above 13. The Louping –ill is transmitted by a. Ixodes ticks b. droplet infection c. through milk d. all the above 14. Louping ill is mainly a disease of a. Sheep b. goat c. cattle d. mouse 15. High fever, muscular tremor, in co-ordination bounding gait are characteristic of a. tetanus b. Rabies c. Louping – ill d. coenurus cerebralis 16. Maintenance host for Louping ill a. pigs b. cattle c. mouse d. goat 17. Following is used for confirmation of louping all virus. a. HI b. CFI c. ELISA d. avidin-biotin complex immuno peroxidase technique. 18. influenza like disease and meningo encephalitis in human is caused by a. RVF b. Louping ill c. Rabies d. yellow fever 19. Reservoir host fox louping ill, a. Pigs b. Goat c. grouse d. deer 20. Transmission of louping ill in ticks is by a. Transtadial b. transovarion c. both d. no tick transmission Note:
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Glossary of Veterinary Clinical Abbreviations and Acronyms Download
Credit: Contributed by one of our fellow vet 1. South African gall sickness is otherwise called a. Ehrlichiosis b. Anaplasmosis c. Babesiosis d. Both a and b 2. Anaplasmosis is one of the ----------- diseases a. Bacterial b. Viral c. Protozoal d. Rickettsial 3. -------- is lack in Anaplasma marginale a. Cell membrane b. Cytoplasm c. Cell wall d. both b and c 4. Anaplasma can be destroyed by heating at a. 60ºC for 60 min. b. 45ºC for 50 min. c. 40ºC for 5 min. d. 35ºC for 10 min. 5. Anaplasmosis is transmitted by a. Tabanus spp. b. Stomoxys spp. c. Mosquitoes d. all the above 6. In anaplasmosis, lesions are more profound in the a. Reticulo-endothelial system b. Nervous system c. Respiratory system d. Urinary system 7. On blood film examination, which one of the parasites present in the margin of R.B.Cs a. Ehrlichia bovis b. Ehrlichia canis c. Anaplasma marginale d. Theileria annulata 8. Card agglutination test and Bentonite flocculation test are the diagnostic tests for a. Rhinosporidiasis b. Candidiasis c. Aflatoxicosis d. Anaplasmosis 9.Anaplasma spp. are obligate -----------parasite a. Extra-cytoplasmic b. Intra-erythrocytic c. Intra-cytoplasmic d. None of the above 10. Anaplasmosis is an ---------- in tropical and subtropical countries a. Sporadic b. Endemic c. Epidemic d. Pandemic 11. Anaplasma marginale and A. Centrale are most commonly affect the a. Cattle b. Sheep c. Goat d. Horse 12. Anaplasma ovis will not affect the a. Sheep b. Goat c. Dog d. Cattle 13. The efficient mechanical vector for anaplasmosis is a. Musca spp. b. Culex spp. c. Tabanids d. both a and b 14. Risk factors for anaplasmosis a. White coat b. Black coat c. Red coat d. b and c 15. Anaplasma may infect a. Immature erythrocytes b. Mature erythrocytes c. Developing erythrocytes d. a and c 16. Haemoglobinuria is absent in a. Babesiosis b. Theileriosis c. Anaplasmosis d. a and b 17. Tetracycline is most effective for the treatment of a. Fascioliasis b. Trypanosomiasis c. a and b d. Anaplasmosis 18. Imidocarb and estradiol are effective for the treatment of a. Anaplasmosis b. Anthrax c. FMD d. IBRT 19.It is better to use ----------- type of vaccine against anaplasmosis a. Live vaccine b. Killed and adjuvanted vaccine c. both a and b d. a only 20. The risk of using live anaplasma vaccine is a. Neonatal isoerythrolysis b. Phagocyte lysis c. Neonatal leukocytosis d. b and c 21. Which of the following is least consistent with Anaplasmosis? a. Fever b. Icterus. c. Hemoglobunuria d. Abortion. Note:
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VETERINARY PHARMACOLOGY 1. Plasma protein to which majority of drugs bind is --------- 2. ----------- is the principal metabolic pathway for sulfonamide compounds 3. Precursor of endogenous catecholamines in the body is-------- 4. Drug of choice in acute anaphylactic shock is ------ 5. OP compound that interact with both esteratic and anionic site of acetylcholine esterase is ----- 6. A racemic mixture of d-hyoscyamine and l-hyoscyamine is -------- 7. What are soporifics? 8. The term "Anaesthesia" was coined by ------ 9. Precursor of serotonin is ------ 10. What are endorphins? 11. Species that require more amount of anaesthetics is------- 12. The avian species in which procaine is contraindicated is ----- 13. In which breed of dogs thiobarbiturates are contraindicated? 14. Paralysis of ------ is a complication encountered in anaesthesia of Horse 15. Which stage of anaesthesia is bypassed by barbiturates? 16. Laryngyospasm during induction of anaesthesia is more common in ------- 17. Specific treatment for malignant hyperthermia in Pigs caused by halothane is----- 18. Oxidation of chloroform to phosgene can be prevented by adding ----- 19. Barbiturates are derivatives of ----------- 20. Oxytetracycline is obtained from ------------ 21. --------------- is a benzimidazole with antifungal property 22. Primary mechanism of action of Mebendazole is inhibition of --------- by worms 23. Wormicidal drug that can be given as immunomodulator at lower doses is ------- 24. Two chemical components seen in Ivermectin are ----- and -------- 25. Drug active against immature stages of Fascioa hepatica is ----------- 26. Antidote for Cyanide poisoning was discovered by --------- 27. Organochlorine compound which does not accumulates in the body is ---------- 28. The enzyme in haeme synthesis which is inhibited by lead poisoning is --------- 29. Conium maculatum is better known as --------- 30. Dose of BAL in Arsenic poisoning in Large animals is ----------- 31. --------- is the metabolic product of Procaine 32. Give an example of a specific COX-2 inhibitor 33. Old Hen Test is used to detect ------------ potential of Organophoshate compounds 34. ------------------- is a type of retinal degeneration caused by Bracken Fern Poisoning 35. The specific antidote for Copper poisoning is ------------ 36. Violent Dyspnoea "Thumping" is seen in pigs as a result of ----------- 37. Animal species to which Benzene Hexa Chloride is highly toxic is ------- 38. Highly potent Organophosporous compound is --------- 39. The synergists that is added to pyrethroid compounds in order to enhance its effect is ------ 40. What are Burton's Lines? 41. Specific antidote for Nitrate poisoning is ----------- 42. Gentamicin, the aminoglycoside drug is obtained from --------- 43. The Fungal toxin that causes reproductive problems in sows is -------- 44. The anti BP drug Atenolol belongs to which group of Antiarrythmic Agents ? 45. Most potent H2 Blocker is ---------- 46. Most potent Local anaesthetic is--------- 47. What does " Utectic Mixture " contain? 48. The most potent of all the Aflatoxins is------ 49. Father of Pharmacology is ------ 50. Izoniazid and Ethambutol are the drugs used in the treatment of -------- Solutions 1. albumin 2. Acetylation 3. phenylalanine 4. epinephrine 5. Echothiophate 6. Atropine 7. sleep inducers 8. Oliver Wendell Holmes 9. Tryptophan 10. Endogenous analgesics 11. Horse 12. Parakeet 13. Grey Hounds 14. facial nerve 15. Stage 2 16. cats 17. Dantrolene 18. 1% ethanol 19. Malonyl Urea 20. Streptomyces rimosus 21. Thiabendazole 22. Glucose uptake 23. Levamisole 24. B1a and B1b 25. Diamfenetide 26. K K Chen 27. Endosulfan 28. Aminolevulinic acid dehydratase 29. Hemlock 30. 3mg/kg @ 4hr interval deep i/m 31. PABA 32. Cefocoxib 33. Organo Phosphorous Induced Delayed Neurotoxicity 34. Bright blindness 35. D-penicillamine 36. Gossypol poisoning 37. cat 38. Parathion 39. Piperonyl Butoxide 40. Blue line in gums in lead poisoning 41. Methylene Blue 42. Micromonosporum purpureum 43. Zearalenone 44. Class 2 45. Famotidine 46. Bupivacaine 47. Prilocaine and Lidocaine 48. B1 49. Rudolf Bucheim 50. Tuberculosis
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